CST 183. Object-Oriented Software Design
CST 183. Object-Oriented Software Design
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Posted By View Student Profile
Subject Computer
Deadline (Pacific Time) 03/11/2017 03:00 pm
Budget $30-$100
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Q1. A(n) ____ diagram is useful to denote which classes work together as a subsystem.
    a. package
    b. design class
    c. interaction
    d. design statechart
Q2. ____ are classes that system designers create to serve as a collection point for incoming messages.
    a. Persistent classes
    b. Use case controllers
    c. Control classes
    d. Links
Q3. The package notation is a ____.
    a. circle with an iconic symbol
    b. nested oval
    c. tabbed rectangle
    d. rounded rectangle
Q4. In an adaptive approach, a complete, formal set of design documents is developed before programming begins.
    a. true
    b. false
Q5. In design class notation, a(n) plus sign indicates that an attribute is private.
    a. true
    b. false
Q6. In a communication diagram, a(n) sequence number indicates the order of the messages.
    a. true
    b. false
Q7. CRC cards are index cards that are used to document the classes in a system, the ways the classes collaborate, and the responsibility for each class for each use case collaboration.
    a. true
    b. false
Q8. Design statechart diagrams are use extensively in designing business systems.
    a. true
    b. false
Q9. A ____ server applies the principle of indirection by appearing as a fake server, which catches all incoming messages and redistributes them to the recipients.
    a. communications
    b. client
    c. network
    d. proxy
Q10. Designers often sketch statechart fragments to illustrate a single control process in the system.
    a. true
    b. false
Q11. A Web page can be depicted in an implementation diagram by a frameset and stereotype.
    a. true
    b. false
Q12. Behavioral patterns provide solutions to meet the architectural needs of the system.
    a. true
    b. false
Q13. ____ is an advanced database tool to access databases from Web pages.
    a. HTML
    b. XML
    c. Cold Fusion
    d. JavaScript
Q14. In most instances, you can think of a(n) state in a statechart as the execution of a method.
    a. true
    b. false
Q15. In the book, Elements of Reusable Object-Oriented Software, the authors identify three basic design patterns.
    a. true
    b. false
Q16. Databases and DBMSs provide data access via a ____.
    a. query language
    b. data warehouse
    c. persistent class
    d. schema
Q17. ODL class definitions derive from the corresponding UML domain model class diagram.
    a. true
    b. false
Q18. The ODMG standards are the basis of the JDO standards, as well as some interfaces between ODBMSs and the C++ and SmallTalk programming languages.
    a. true
    b. false
Q19. In ODL class definitions, generalization associations are indicated with the keyword ____.
    a. relationship
    b. inverse
    c. extends
    d. matches
Q20. Declaring an association as a(n) ____ allows the ODBMS to allocate as many object identifier attributes of one object type to each object of the other type as are needed to represent association instances.
    a. primary key
    b. attribute
    c. complex type
    d. set
Q21. A database model is considered flexible and maintainable if changes to the database schema can be made with minimal disruption to existing data content and structure.
    a. true
    b. false
Q22. DBMSs provide simultaneous access by many users and application programs.
    a. true
    b. false
Q23. When designing for the computer medium, design for low bandwidth.
    a. true
    b. false
Q24. Browser forms can be displayed using any Internet browser.
    a. true
    b. false
Q25. Easy-to-learn interfaces are appropriate for office workers that use a system all day.
    a. true
    b. false
Q26. Activity diagrams can document the dialog between user and computer for a use case.
    a. true
    b. false
Q27. HTML is an acronym for Hypertext Markup Language.
    a. true
    b. false
Q28. The object-oriented approach to user-centered design focuses on users and their work by identifying actors, use cases, and scenarios followed when using the system..
    a. true
    b. false
Q29. System developers often construct forms with _____ to streamline the process and ensure user involvement.
    a. paper diagrams
    b. presentation tools
    c. outside vendors
    d. prototyping tools
Q30. Design activities for high risk system interfaces might come up in early inception phase iterations.
    a. true
    b. false
Q31. ____ and many Web-based systems are integrated with other systems through direct messaging.
    a. HCI
    b. EDI
    c. HTML
    d. DTD
Q32. ____ embeds beginning and ending markup codes within a text-based document to define the characteristics such as formatting of text or a figure.
    a. HCI
    b. EDI
    c. HTML
    d. DTD
Q33. An ad hoc report is the result of a(n) ____.
    a. concern raised by the programming team
    b. new user query to a database
    c. request based on analyst requirements
    d. error detected by the system
Q34. One of the most pervasive sources of erroneous data is ____.
    a. electronic pens
    b. bar-code readers
    c. human keystroking
    d. touch screens
Q35. IPSec and SSL cannot be used at the same time.
    a. true
    b. false
Q36. A(n) ____ report includes both detailed and summary information.
    a. turnaround
    b. control break
    c. executive
    d. ad hoc
Q37. A(n) beta version is a system update that provides bug fixes and small changes to existing features.
    a. true
    b. false
Q38. Parallel operation of old and new systems is generally best when the consequences of a system failure are low.
    a. true
    b. false
Q39. System testing is the process of testing individual methods, classes, or components before they are integrated with other software.
    a. true
    b. false
Q40. Change management procedures for a small project with a cohesive development staff may be informal or nonexistent.
    a. true
    b. false
Q41. Software components are built, acquired, and integrated in the ____ discipline.
    a. design
    b. implementation
    c. testing
    d. deployment
Q42. Beta and production versions must be stored as long as they are installed on any user machines.
    a. true
    b. false
Q43. Foundation classes are typically reused in many parts of the system.
    a. true
    b. false
Q44. In XP development, a(n) ____ can guide members toward a vision and help them understand the system.
    a. sprint
    b. system metaphor
    c. object framework
    d. metamodel
Q45. ____ is a driving force in technologies such as Web services, CORBA, .NET, and ERP systems.
    a. Modeling
    b. Reuse
    c. Refactoring
    d. Inheritance
Q46. The Scrum master sets the project schedule and assigns tasks.
    a. true
    b. false
Q47. The quality of the code is always higher in a pair-programming environment.
    a. true
    b. false
Q48. The first release-level activity in an XP development approach is ____.
    a. performing acceptance testing
    b. creating acceptance tests
    c. planning a series of iterations
    d. dividing code units among teams
Q49. ____ is a philosophy and set of guidelines for developing software in an unknown, rapidly changing environment.
    a. SOAP
    b. Pair programming
    c. Agile Development
    d. Refactoring
Q50. In XP, release-level activities occur once during each development project.
    a. true
    b. false
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Q1. A(n) ____ diagram is useful to denote which classes work together as a subsystem.
    a. package
    b. design class
    c. interaction
    d. design statechart
Q2. ____ are classes that system designers create to serve as a collection point for incoming messages.
    a. Persistent classes
    b. Use case controllers
    c. Control classes
    d. Links
Q3. The package notation is a ____.
    a. circle with an iconic symbol
    b. nested oval
    c. tabbed rectangle
    d. rounded rectangle
Q4. In an adaptive approach, a complete, formal set of design documents is developed before programming begins.
    a. true
    b. false
Q5. In design class notation, a(n) plus sign indicates that an attribute is private.
    a. true
    b. false
Q6. In a communication diagram, a(n) sequence number indicates the order of the messages.
    a. true
    b. false
Q7. CRC cards are index cards that are used to document the classes in a system, the ways the classes collaborate, and the responsibility for each class for each use case collaboration.
    a. true
    b. false
Q8. Design statechart diagrams are use extensively in designing business systems.
    a. true
    b. false
Q9. A ____ server applies the principle of indirection by appearing as a fake server, which catches all incoming messages and redistributes them to the recipients.
    a. communications
    b. client
    c. network
    d. proxy
Q10. Designers often sketch statechart fragments to illustrate a single control process in the system.
    a. true
    b. false
Q11. A Web page can be depicted in an implementation diagram by a frameset and stereotype.
    a. true
    b. false
Q12. Behavioral patterns provide solutions to meet the architectural needs of the system.
    a. true
    b. false
Q13. ____ is an advanced database tool to access databases from Web pages.
    a. HTML
    b. XML
    c. Cold Fusion
    d. JavaScript
Q14. In most instances, you can think of a(n) state in a statechart as the execution of a method.
    a. true
    b. false
Q15. In the book, Elements of Reusable Object-Oriented Software, the authors identify three basic design patterns.
    a. true
    b. false
Q16. Databases and DBMSs provide data access via a ____.
    a. query language
    b. data warehouse
    c. persistent class
    d. schema
Q17. ODL class definitions derive from the corresponding UML domain model class diagram.
    a. true
    b. false
Q18. The ODMG standards are the basis of the JDO standards, as well as some interfaces between ODBMSs and the C++ and SmallTalk programming languages.
    a. true
    b. false
Q19. In ODL class definitions, generalization associations are indicated with the keyword ____.
    a. relationship
    b. inverse
    c. extends
    d. matches
Q20. Declaring an association as a(n) ____ allows the ODBMS to allocate as many object identifier attributes of one object type to each object of the other type as are needed to represent association instances.
    a. primary key
    b. attribute
    c. complex type
    d. set
Q21. A database model is considered flexible and maintainable if changes to the database schema can be made with minimal disruption to existing data content and structure.
    a. true
    b. false
Q22. DBMSs provide simultaneous access by many users and application programs.
    a. true
    b. false
Q23. When designing for the computer medium, design for low bandwidth.
    a. true
    b. false
Q24. Browser forms can be displayed using any Internet browser.
    a. true
    b. false
Q25. Easy-to-learn interfaces are appropriate for office workers that use a system all day.
    a. true
    b. false
Q26. Activity diagrams can document the dialog between user and computer for a use case.
    a. true
    b. false
Q27. HTML is an acronym for Hypertext Markup Language.
    a. true
    b. false
Q28. The object-oriented approach to user-centered design focuses on users and their work by identifying actors, use cases, and scenarios followed when using the system..
    a. true
    b. false
Q29. System developers often construct forms with _____ to streamline the process and ensure user involvement.
    a. paper diagrams
    b. presentation tools
    c. outside vendors
    d. prototyping tools
Q30. Design activities for high risk system interfaces might come up in early inception phase iterations.
    a. true
    b. false
Q31. ____ and many Web-based systems are integrated with other systems through direct messaging.
    a. HCI
    b. EDI
    c. HTML
    d. DTD
Q32. ____ embeds beginning and ending markup codes within a text-based document to define the characteristics such as formatting of text or a figure.
    a. HCI
    b. EDI
    c. HTML
    d. DTD
Q33. An ad hoc report is the result of a(n) ____.
    a. concern raised by the programming team
    b. new user query to a database
    c. request based on analyst requirements
    d. error detected by the system
Q34. One of the most pervasive sources of erroneous data is ____.
    a. electronic pens
    b. bar-code readers
    c. human keystroking
    d. touch screens
Q35. IPSec and SSL cannot be used at the same time.
    a. true
    b. false
Q36. A(n) ____ report includes both detailed and summary information.
    a. turnaround
    b. control break
    c. executive
    d. ad hoc
Q37. A(n) beta version is a system update that provides bug fixes and small changes to existing features.
    a. true
    b. false
Q38. Parallel operation of old and new systems is generally best when the consequences of a system failure are low.
    a. true
    b. false
Q39. System testing is the process of testing individual methods, classes, or components before they are integrated with other software.
    a. true
    b. false
Q40. Change management procedures for a small project with a cohesive development staff may be informal or nonexistent.
    a. true
    b. false
Q41. Software components are built, acquired, and integrated in the ____ discipline.
    a. design
    b. implementation
    c. testing
    d. deployment
Q42. Beta and production versions must be stored as long as they are installed on any user machines.
    a. true
    b. false
Q43. Foundation classes are typically reused in many parts of the system.
    a. true
    b. false
Q44. In XP development, a(n) ____ can guide members toward a vision and help them understand the system.
    a. sprint
    b. system metaphor
    c. object framework
    d. metamodel
Q45. ____ is a driving force in technologies such as Web services, CORBA, .NET, and ERP systems.
    a. Modeling
    b. Reuse
    c. Refactoring
    d. Inheritance
Q46. The Scrum master sets the project schedule and assigns tasks.
    a. true
    b. false
Q47. The quality of the code is always higher in a pair-programming environment.
    a. true
    b. false
Q48. The first release-level activity in an XP development approach is ____.
    a. performing acceptance testing
    b. creating acceptance tests
    c. planning a series of iterations
    d. dividing code units among teams
Q49. ____ is a philosophy and set of guidelines for developing software in an unknown, rapidly changing environment.
    a. SOAP
    b. Pair programming
    c. Agile Development
    d. Refactoring
Q50. In XP, release-level activities occur once during each development project.
    a. true
    b. false
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